Physics is the fundamental science that seeks to understand the underlying principles governing the natural world, from the smallest subatomic particles to the vast expanse of the cosmos. It is the backbone of many technological advancements and a subject that has fascinated scientists, philosophers, and students alike for centuries.
To help students and aspiring educators in the Philippines prepare for their college entrance exams or the Licensure Examination for Teachers, the Philippine Online Reviewer has meticulously crafted a 50-item multiple-choice questionnaire that covers a wide range of topics in physics. This comprehensive reviewer is designed to be an invaluable tool for enhancing your understanding of core physics concepts and providing the essential practice needed for success in any physics-related examination.
Direction: Choose the letter of the correct answer.
1. What is statics in the context of physics?
a. The study of objects in motion
b. The study of forces acting on bodies
c. The study of objects at rest
d. The study of how energy is transferred
2. Where does the normal force act on an object in contact with a surface?
a. Along the surface
b. Perpendicular to the surface
c. Parallel to the surface
d. At a 45-degree angle to the surface
3. When is an object considered to be in equilibrium?
a. When the net force is zero
b. When the acceleration is zero
c. When the velocity is zero
d. When the net force is constant
4. Why is friction generally considered a non-conservative force?
a. Because it depends on the path taken
b. Because it causes energy loss
c. Because it always opposes motion
d. Because it is independent of velocity
5. How is the net force acting on an object in uniform circular motion related to the centripetal force?
a. The net force is equal to the centripetal force
b. The net force is less than the centripetal force
c. The net force is greater than the centripetal force
d. The net force is independent of the centripetal force
6. Which of the following quantities is a scalar?
a. Force
b. Velocity
c. Acceleration
d. Speed
7. What is the SI unit of force?
a. Newton (N)
b. Kilogram (kg)
c. Meter per second squared (m/s^2)
d. Joule (J)
8. Where does the law of conservation of energy apply?
a. Only in mechanical systems
b. Only in thermodynamic systems
c. In all isolated systems
d. Only in elastic collisions
9. When does work done on an object equal the change in its kinetic energy?
a. When the work-energy theorem is applied
b. When the object is at rest
c. When the object is in motion
d. When the object is in equilibrium
10. Why is the work done by a conservative force path-independent?
a. Because it depends on the initial and final positions
b. Because it always acts in the direction of motion
c. Because it causes no energy loss
d. Because it is independent of velocity
11. How is the potential energy of a spring calculated when it is compressed or stretched?
a. Using the formula (1/2)kx^2
b. Using the formula mgx
c. Using the formula kx
d. Using the formula (1/2)mv^2
12. Which of the following best describes the first law of thermodynamics?
a. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
b. The entropy of an isolated system always increases
c. The efficiency of a heat engine can never be 100%
d. Temperature and pressure are inversely proportional
13. What is the SI unit of temperature?
a. Celsius
b. Fahrenheit
c. Kelvin
d. Rankine
14. Where does heat flow when two objects with different temperatures come into contact?
a. From the object with lower temperature to the object with higher temperature
b. From the object with higher temperature to the object with lower temperature
c. Equally between the two objects
d. Heat does not flow between objects
15. When does a gas undergo an isothermal process?
a. When its temperature remains constant
b. When its pressure remains constant
c. When its volume remains constant
d. When its internal energy remains constant
16. Why does the internal energy of an ideal gas depend only on its temperature?
a. Because the particles have negligible volume
b. Because the particles do not interact
c. Because the gas is in equilibrium
d. Because the particles move in random directions
17. How is the efficiency of a heat engine defined?
a. The ratio of useful work output to heat input
b. The ratio of heat input to useful work output
c. The ratio of heat output to heat input
d. The ratio of heat output to useful work output
18. Which of the following best describes Ohm's law?
a. The current through a conductor is directly proportional to the voltage across it and inversely proportional to its resistance
b. The current through a conductor is directly proportional to the voltage across it and directly proportional to its resistance
c. The current through a conductor is inversely proportional to the voltage across it and directly proportional to its resistance
d. The current through a conductor is inversely proportional to the voltage across it and inversely proportional to its resistance
19. What is the SI unit of electric charge?
a. Ampere (A)
b. Volt (V)
c. Coulomb (C)
d. Ohm (Ω)
20. Where is the electric field strength the greatest around a point charge?
a. Close to the point charge
b. Far away from the point charge
c. At a fixed distance from the point charge
d. The electric field strength is constant everywhere
21. When do two charges repel each other according to Coulomb's law?
a. When they have opposite charges
b. When they have the same charge
c. When they are close together
d. When they are far apart
22. Why does the potential difference across a resistor cause a current to flow through it?
a. Because it creates an electric field within the resistor
b. Because it creates a magnetic field within the resistor
c. Because it generates heat within the resistor
d. Because it changes the resistance of the resistor
23. How is the power dissipated in a resistor calculated?
a. P = IV
b. P = I^2R
c. P = V^2/R
d. All of the above
24. Which of the following devices converts mechanical energy into electrical energy?
a. Motor
b. Generator
c. Transformer
d. Capacitor
25. What is the SI unit of frequency?
a. Hertz (Hz)
b. Meter (m)
c. Second (s)
d. Radian (rad)
26. Where is the amplitude of a wave the largest?
a. At the crest of the wave
b. At the trough of the wave
c. Halfway between the crest and the trough
d. At the midpoint of the wave
27. When do waves undergo constructive interference?
a. When their amplitudes are equal and in phase
b. When their amplitudes are equal and out of phase
c. When their amplitudes are unequal and in phase
d. When their amplitudes are unequal and out of phase
28. Why does a prism disperse white light into its constituent colors?
a. Because of reflection
b. Because of refraction
c. Because of diffraction
d. Because of interference
29. How is the index of refraction defined for a medium?
a. The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in the medium
b. The ratio of the speed of light in the medium to the speed of light in a vacuum
c. The ratio of the angle of incidence to the angle of refraction
d. The ratio of the angle of refraction to the angle of incidence
30. Which of the following phenomena is a result of the wave-particle duality of light?
a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Diffraction
d. Dispersion
31. What is the principle of superposition in the context of wave interference?
a. The net displacement of a medium is the sum of the individual displacements
b. The net displacement of a medium is the difference between the individual displacements
c. The net displacement of a medium is the product of the individual displacements
d. The net displacement of a medium is the quotient of the individual displacements
32. Where do nodes occur in a standing wave?
a. At points of maximum displacement
b. At points of minimum displacement
c. At points of constant displacement
d. At points of zero displacement
33. When does the Doppler effect occur?
a. When a wave source is stationary
b. When a wave source is moving
c. When an observer is stationary
d. When an observer is moving
34. Why do polarized sunglasses reduce glare?
a. They block light waves with specific orientations
b. They focus light waves onto a single point
c. They scatter light waves in multiple directions
d. They transmit light waves with specific orientations
35. How is the focal length of a thin lens related to its power?
a. The focal length is directly proportional to the power
b. The focal length is inversely proportional to the power
c. The focal length is equal to the power
d. The focal length is independent of the power
36. Which of the following mirrors produces a virtual, upright, and magnified image?
a. Concave mirror
b. Convex mirror
c. Plane mirror
d. Parabolic mirror
37. What is the critical angle for total internal reflection?
a. The angle of incidence when the angle of refraction is 0 degrees
b. The angle of incidence when the angle of refraction is 90 degrees
c. The angle of refraction when the angle of incidence is 0 degrees
d. The angle of refraction when the angle of incidence is 90 degrees
38. Where does Snell's law apply?
a. At the interface between two media with different indices of refraction
b. At the interface between two media with the same index of refraction
c. Only in transparent media
d. Only in opaque media
39. When does the magnification of an object equal its image distance divided by its object distance?
a. In a mirror system
b. In a lens system
c. In a simple optical system
d. In a complex optical system
40. Why does chromatic aberration occur in lenses?
a. Because different colors of light have different indices of refraction
b. Because different colors of light have different wavelengths
c. Because different colors of light have different amplitudes
d. Because different colors of light have different speeds
41. How is the resolving power of an optical instrument defined?
a. The ability to distinguish between closely spaced objects
b. The ability to magnify an object
c. The ability to transmit light efficiently
d. The ability to minimize aberrations
42. Which of the following best describes Huygens' principle?
a. Each point on a wavefront serves as the source of a new wavelet
b. Light travels in straight lines
c. Light exhibits both wave-like and particle-like properties
d. The speed of light is constant in a vacuum
43. What is the principle of least time in the context of Fermat's principle?
a. Light always takes the shortest path between two points
b. Light always takes the path with the least time between two points
c. Light always takes the shortest path with the least time between two points
d. Light always takes the path with the greatest time between two points
44. Where does the phenomenon of diffraction occur?
a. When light passes through a small opening or around an obstacle
b. When light passes through a medium with a varying index of refraction
c. When light reflects off a surface
d. When light refracts at the boundary between two media
45. When do electromagnetic waves propagate without the need for a medium?
a. In a vacuum
b. In a gas
c. In a liquid
d. In a solid
46. Why does the speed of sound increase with increasing temperature?
a. Because the particles move more rapidly
b. Because the density of the medium increases
c. Because the particles interact more strongly
d. Because the pressure of the medium increases
47. How is the intensity of a sound wave related to its amplitude?
a. The intensity is directly proportional to the amplitude
b. The intensity is inversely proportional to the amplitude
c. The intensity is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude
d. The intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the amplitude
48. Which of the following best describes the Doppler effect for sound waves?
a. The change in frequency observed when a sound source and an observer are in relative motion
b. The change in amplitude observed when a sound source and an observer are in relative motion
c. The change in speed observed when a sound source and an observer are in relative motion
d. The change in wavelength observed when a sound source and an observer are in relative motion
49. What is the fundamental frequency of a vibrating string?
a. The lowest frequency at which the string vibrates
b. The highest frequency at which the string vibrates
c. The average frequency at which the string vibrates
d. The constant frequency at which the string vibrates
50. Where do standing waves occur in a closed pipe?
a. At the open end of the pipe
b. At the closed end of the pipe
c. At the midpoint of the pipe
d. At the nodes of the pipe
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